Dear Gramps,

We were having a discussion about the loss of King David’s inheritance. If all sins may be forgiven except the denial of the Holy Ghost, why did King David lose his inheritance? I know it was because of adultery. But did he not truly repent? Doesn’t it say he sorrowed for his sin? Thanks

LC, from Idaho

Dear LC,

To sorrow for sin and to repent are two entirely different things. Many are sorry for the consequences of their wrong doing, but they do not change their behavior. Not only did David commit adultery but he was responsible for the death of Bathsheba’s husband, Uriah. What did he do to rectify his wrong doing? He confessed to Nathan, but did he repent of his actions? Further, there are sins for which there is no repentance-

“The blasphemy against the Holy Ghost, which shall not be forgiven in the world nor out of the world, is in that ye commit murder wherein ye shed innocent blood, and assent unto my death, after ye have received my new and everlasting covenant, saith the Lord God; and he that abideth not this law can in nowise enter into my glory, but shall be damned, saith the Lord” (D&C 132:27).

Gramps