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Did the Savior pay the price for sin before his actual crucifixion?*

Dear Gramps,

I read with interest your response to a question related to the atonement of Christ. Would you please enlarge upon that answer by replying to my inquiry? My understanding of the Savior’s experiences during the last few hours of his mortal life is that our sins were paid for by His unspeakable agony in Gethsemane, and his torturous death upon the cross was solely for the purpose of overcoming physical death; He being the “first fruits of the resurrection.” However, your answer and quote from 1 John indicate Jesus’ death on the cross was part of the needed price of the redemption of mankind from sin, and not Gethsemane alone. Please explain the purpose for these two events in the mission of Jesus. Gratefully,

Richard

Dear Richard,

Let’s keep in mind that the sacrifice of the Savior was an infinite” sacrifice. The suffering of the Savior was without limit, sufficient to pay the price of all sins committed by all living mortal beings living on all the worlds, in all the ages of time–past, present and future. His suffering in that awful experience did not end until his life was ended. He did not say it is finished until the moment before he bowed his head and gave up the ghost.

When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, It is finished: and he bowed his head, and gave up the ghost ( John 19:30.)

Gramps

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